Question:

According to the KJV, it seems that the Messiah may sin:

2 Sam 7:14: I will be his father, and he shall be my son. If he commit iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the children of men.

According to the New Testament, Jesus is without sin [Heb 4:15].  What is the deal?

Response:

The issue is a translation issue.  The KJV translation has also found its way into many popular English translations, so this isnt an uncommon question.  However, when we examine the original Hebrew and LXX Greek texts, we find something much different than what the KJV suggests:





According to the LXX, the Messiah doesnt sin, but rather sin approaches the Messiah or comes to him.  This of course is consistent with the theology of the Cross.  The Messiah doesnt sin, but when sin approaches him, he endures punishment for it.  This is consistent with the idea of a suffering Messiah who endures the punishment for sin so that people (ie - sinners) may approach God.

According to the Hebrew text, the Messiah is "like a son which does wrong" - however this doesnt mean that the Messiah actually does wrong, but rather is like one who does.  This is also consistent with the theology of the Cross, meaning that Jesus is sinless but his death atones for our sin.  He is punished like a son who does wrong, but the text doesn't necessarily say that he actually does it.